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WHY 1 TIM. 3:2 DOES NOT EXCLUDE WOMEN FROM BEING PASTORS-
1. The conclusion that an elder (presbuteros) must be male comes from placing the emphasis of the sentence on "husband." However, if we are going to read so rigidly, they not only have to be male, but a married male.
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1. The conclusion that an elder (presbuteros) must be male comes from placing the emphasis of the sentence on "husband." However, if we are going to read so rigidly, they not only have to be male, but a married male.
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2. This is further reinforced by the the rest of the sentence: they must be the husband "of one wife." If we are going to read husband/man so woodenly, we must do so with every word of the clause-they must have ONE wife.
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3. This means they cannot have zero wives, or two wives. They cannot be single, divorced (back to zero?), or remarried (now two wives-If we are reading woodenly, we cannot add the interpretation of "one wife AT A TIME").
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4. If we follow the methodology of placing such emphasis on a single word of a sentence, we must be consistent to do so with every word. We can't say, they must be male based on "husband/man," but fudge on "one" wife.
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5. However, if the meaning of a sentence is based on the combination of words (illocutions), not just individual words divorced from context (locutions), then the meaning of the sentence is easily ascertainable: an elder must be faithful to their spouse.
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Another item to consider: Paul makes the same requirement of deacons in 1 Timothy 3:12 that deacons must be "the husband of one wife". And yet, we have a female deaconess-Pheobe-in Romans 16:1. Do we only have female deacons because Pheobe forces our hand?
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So why does Paul address only male elders?
He doesn't.
Check 1 Timothy 5.
v. 1 Paul speaks to elders (presbuteros) again. (The primary Greek meaning of presbuteros is elderly)
Then in 1 Tim. 5:9-10 Paul speaks to elder women (women over 60).
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He doesn't.
Check 1 Timothy 5.
v. 1 Paul speaks to elders (presbuteros) again. (The primary Greek meaning of presbuteros is elderly)
Then in 1 Tim. 5:9-10 Paul speaks to elder women (women over 60).
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They too are to be the wife of one husband, raised her children well, known for good deeds, and have a reputation of offering hospitality.
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Paul may have esp. emphasized this for male elders/deacons because:
1. Greek women were not prone to multiple marriages. Greek men were.
2. Extra marital affairs were par for the course for Greek men, but not tolerated for Greek women (b/c of concern for legitimate sons).
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1. Greek women were not prone to multiple marriages. Greek men were.
2. Extra marital affairs were par for the course for Greek men, but not tolerated for Greek women (b/c of concern for legitimate sons).
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3. The divorce rate for Greek men rivaled ours today (Greek men remarried more commonly and frequently than women).
*IMPORTANT: None of this is an attempt to dismiss this scripture-a male elder must be faithful to his spouse. And so should a female elder (1 Tim. 5:9-10)*
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*IMPORTANT: None of this is an attempt to dismiss this scripture-a male elder must be faithful to his spouse. And so should a female elder (1 Tim. 5:9-10)*
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Finally, it is worth mentioning that this verse does not mention "pastors" (Greek: poimén) and in many modern contexts, "Elder" and "pastor" are not the same office. A Pastor may be an Elder, but there are also many pastors that do not sit on elder boards.
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I will speak to 1 Tim. 2:12 next, but can we at least acknowledge that those who have female pastors are NOT UNBIBLICAL on the basis of this verse alone?
I humbly ask that we not conclude that female pastors are a betrayal of Christ's sovereignty or Scripture's authority.
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I humbly ask that we not conclude that female pastors are a betrayal of Christ's sovereignty or Scripture's authority.
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NB: I cited "prebuteros" in 3:2, instead of "episkopon." That is my mistake, but does not materially change the accuracy of the argument in terms of the hermeneutical flaw in reading so rigidly.
