First of all marx's value theory isn't an ltv second of marx talks about this directly in 3 instances, in volume 2 in chapter 5 & 14 and he dedicates a whole section for it, in theories of surplus value where he uses it as a point of critique against ricardians. To answer tho (1/ https://twitter.com/s0larbody/status/1384687341936185344

For marx there is variable and constant capital. Variable capital creates new value, meanwhile constant capital merely passes its value in to the commodity (think of the cotton passing its value to the cotton shirt). For marx production time includes the labour process and

interruptions in the process of production. When the labor process is interrupted, no new value is created, although the value of constant capital continues to be transferred to the product as the productive process continues in the absence of labor. Think of the value of the

barrels, the cost of maintaining the building that the wine is kept, the rent/cost of the building all of these are examples of constant capital passing its value to the wine.

Hence the value of fremented wine ends up being higher but this all an answer based on a misunderstanding because for marx value =/= price.

Pls like and retweet so I won't delete this thread in shame.

Come on guys more likes and retweets.