need a quantum mechanics mufo

trying to work out if measurement of an electrons spin along a given axis and why it changes the spin along other axis can be roughly thought of as an action of axis to axis alignment occuring during the measurement process

this seems to track with the quantum indirect/QND process of spin measurement which utilises a second electron to mirror the spin state of the first, and then the direct measurement process is performed on the second. which seems to imply that it'd be possible to

simultaneously measure the spin for all axis of the first electron, and the possibly reconstruct some information about the real? spin axis? without invalidating previous measurements, but i cant find anything that interprets to me as confirmation of that

it almost seems like the indeterminacy of measuring seperate axises can be considered as arising as a result of not precisely knowing the true axis prior to measurement, which induces a realignment. from what i gather the equations seem to forbid a measurement result of 0

which seems like it would correspond to perfectly perpendicular alignment, which tbh i'm not sure how to take

maybe a result of unavoidable limits on precision or maybe reality flips a coin i guess

from what i've read it seems like electrons cant be considered as "spinning" due to being point particles and that generally the spinning of a magnetic dipole or w/e arises from the spinning of an object but i havent found something saying that something must necessarily spin for

the field to spin, and it seems that whether the object has any definable axis of spin or not is irrelevant to its field having a definable axis, and that perhaps the reason the field spins is precisely bc there is no axis about which to spin, giving rise to something similar to

the hl2 physics engine 'bug' with intersecting objects. anyway quantum mechanics is confusing and i'm just spitballin