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"How Much Can We Generalize From Impact Evaluations" is out at JEEA!
Here's a thread with the key takeaways.... 1/ https://twitter.com/JEEA_News/status/1318780863912529920
Here's a thread with the key takeaways.... 1/ https://twitter.com/JEEA_News/status/1318780863912529920
Impact evaluations have taken off in development economics and other empirical fields. These evaluations can inform policy decisions. But how much do results generalize? In other words, if you find a large effect in one context, will it also apply to another? 2/
My paper estimates the generalizability of impact evaluation results for 20 different types of development program (e.g. cash transfers, deworming, etc.), using data from 635 studies (including both RCTs and non-RCTs, published and unpublished).
Here's what I find.... 3/
Here's what I find.... 3/
First, let's check out a part of the (dense) Table 6. This table is based on intervention-outcome combinations, e.g., conditional cash transfers - effects on school enrollment. Why intervention-outcome combinations? When you consider generalizability, the "set" is important. 4/
Within each intervention-outcome, I have a bunch of papers' results, which I use to generate intervention-outcome-level measures. This table shows summary stats across the intervention-outcomes, e.g., the 50th percentile of a stat across intervention-outcomes in the data. 5/
Okay, now what are these stats? P(sign) gives the probability that a random-effects Bayesian hierarchical model (BHM) estimated using all the data within the set would correctly predict the sign of a randomly-selected true effect in that set. 6/
So, for a typical intervention-outcome combination, you'd have a 61% chance of getting the sign right. 7/
Next, we have the square root of the MSE. This is a very policy-relevant variable, because it tells you how far off your BHM estimate is likely to be. But the magnitude of this measure will depend on the units of the outcome. I'll return to this. 8/
τ^2 also is a measure of the variance that depends on the units - in particular, it's a measure of the true unexplained heterogeneity across studies, after taking out sampling variance. 9/
I^2 is defined as that estimate of the true inter-study variance over total variance (i.e. τ^2/(τ^2+sampling variance)). So, it will always run from 0 to 1, and the lower I^2 is, the more sampling variance is responsible for results being far apart. 10/
In a way, if it were just that sampling variance were large, that would be a good problem to have. Because we know how to solve that problem: larger sample sizes.
Sadly, it turns out that sampling variance plays a very limited role in explaining variation in study results. 11/
Sadly, it turns out that sampling variance plays a very limited role in explaining variation in study results. 11/
The next column shows a coefficient of variation-like measure, using the BHM estimates. The coefficient of variation is actually defined as the sd over the mean, so what we have here should be a bit better because rather than the sd we're using τ, without sampling variance. 12/
The meta-analysis mean, μ, scales τ and makes it more interpretable. You can also do the same for the MSE, and if you do, the median ratio of the root-MSE to that mean is >2 across intervention-outcome combinations. 13/
In other words, I'm sorry to say, if you are to use the BHM mean as your best guess, chances are you would be wildly off. 14/
But there's some good news, too.
First, a lot of people worry that RCTs produce less generalizable evidence, e.g. because they may be done only in certain contexts. I don't find any evidence of that. Here are the same stats for RCTs: 15/
First, a lot of people worry that RCTs produce less generalizable evidence, e.g. because they may be done only in certain contexts. I don't find any evidence of that. Here are the same stats for RCTs: 15/
And if you do an OLS regression, RCT results also don't pop out as having significantly larger or smaller effect sizes (of course, this is across many different intervention-outcome combinations). 16/
Second, you could think that sure, a random-effects BHM will be wildly off, but maybe a more complicated model will help. And it does seem to. There aren't many intervention-outcome combinations for which I have enough data for meta-regression, but - 17/
- if you were to take the single best-fitting explanatory variable and add that to your BHM to make it a mixed model, you can explain about 20% of the remaining variance, on average, or a median of about 10%. 18/
And you might expect that if you were to use micro data to build a richer model, you could do better than that. (<- paper idea for grad students) 19/
A final takeaway: RCTs didn't have significantly different effect sizes, but government-implemented projects had smaller effects, even after taking these studies' larger sample sizes into account (larger studies tend to have smaller effects, e.g. from publication bias). 20/
Maybe this is due to capacity constraints at scale. Maybe it's Allcott 2015-style site selection bias, where you do your initial studies on the most promising targets & then as you scale up the project is less well-targeted. Maybe it's incentives. Further research required. /end
