Great example of the level of dishonesty on display. Every single verse is quoted out of context in its immediate context or in the book it's in. https://twitter.com/HomerHalal/status/1282436206677106695
For example Matthew 16:27 says:

For the Son of Man is going to come in the glory of His Father with His angels, and will then repay every man according to his deeds.

This text proves the deity of Christ from two angles:

1) It's saying He comes in the glory of the Father
According to Isaiah 42:8, God doesn't give His glory to another, yet here Christ shares in the glory of the Father. This means Jesus is God.

2) It speaks of Jesus coming to judge all creation. This is a theme throughout the NT. In the OT God alone comes to judge all creation.
Also compare Jesus' words in Revelation 22:12 with Isaiah 40:10

Behold, His reward is with Him and His recompense before Him.

Isaiah 40:10

Behold, I am coming quickly, and My reward is with Me, to render to every man according to what he has done.

Revelation 22:12
The language of "to render to each man according to his deeds" is used multiple times in the OT in relation to the Lord God, and Him alone.

Jesus also plays the role of the cosmic judge of the world in Matthew 25, a role given to God alone in the OT and in the Quran.
Numbers 23:19 is not talking about the incarnation but God's faithfulness to Israel, unlike humans who lie, God doesn't lie because He's not a human.

Additionally this assumes that God is somehow human by nature, which no Christian believes. God the Word took on a human nature.
This doesn't mean He's human by nature. He's not. He simply became a man by taking on an additional human nature.
Finally, the title "Son of Man" is not at all insignificant and while it certainly links to the humanity of Jesus Christ, in Daniel 7 the "one like a Son of Man" is a divine figure, riding on the clouds (something God alone does), and receiving worship and an eternal kingdom.
I should also add that texts which say Jesus is "a man" don't at all argue against the Christian conception of the incarnation. We believe He is and remains a man, and rules as the New Adam forever, both as God and man. The Bible discusses both.
For example, while John 8:40 dies call Jesus a man, it also says Abraham did not behave like the Jews did in seeking to kill Jesus. This is a cryptic statement. How could Abraham not kill Jesus if Jesus didn't pre-exist? The answer is found in OT theophanies to Abraham.
God appears to Abraham multiple times in the OT, each time Abraham receives God gladly. It seems the reference here is specifically Genesis 18 where God appears with 2 angels and Abraham receives the visitors happily (18:3-5). Abraham's reaction was thus antithetical to the Jews.
John 8 climaxes with Jesus telling the Jews "Before Abraham was born, I am", inciting a reaction to blasphemy from the Jews who surely understood Jesus as referring to OT texts like Deuteronomy 32:39 (the LXX has the same absolute 'I am' form).
You can follow @AlFinlandi.
Tip: mention @twtextapp on a Twitter thread with the keyword “unroll” to get a link to it.

Latest Threads Unrolled: