(1/2) Here's a conundrum: An Artist makes a song and obtains the rights to sample a classic (song x) in the musical composition(song y), and then another artist makes a remix of the same song(song y) using just the lyrics and not the musical composition (song z)...

Do the writers of song x lose composer shares in song z, because the music that sampled song x has now been stripped away? Keep in mind that part of what made song y whole and relevant is the sample from song x itself.

Now this question can get even more complex where all the songs involved originate from different countries with different policies regarding sampling/interpolation and remixing.