Look the question "Do AMAB trans people experience male privilege before coming out?" keeps going around Twitter and I think we need to understand that it is, at best, a massive flattening of several theoretical concepts and isn't really answerable as is.

For one, "male privilege" is really just sort of a shorthand term for a complex and dynamic network of ideas. It usually works as a shorthand because we're often using it in a discussion about something else (wage inequality, for instance). But when we use it to talk about itself

we have to ask what "male privilege" even means. What does it entail? Where does it come from? How does it change across time, place, and cultural context? For that matter, what does "male" mean? What does it mean to be "assigned" a gender? Who is even "trans" in the first place?

The answer to all of these questions are wildly diverse from person to person and are all informed by other contexts. A Black trans woman in 1973 and a white AMAB non-binary person in 1998 and a two-spirit Indigenous person from 2010 all have *wildly* divergent answers to these

questions (the answers to many of which might be "does not apply in a non-white, non-Western context."). So when you ask "do AMAB trans people experience male privilege prior to coming out?", you either need to explain what you mean VERY specifically, or else understand that what

"AMAB trans people" often hear in this question is "aren't trans people just a liiiiitle bit still [men/women] though??" We hear this because it's what gets asked of us over and over. Most of us don't have the time, energy, or maybe even the safety to assume the question

is being asked in good faith. So stop asking unless you're willing to clarify. And trans folks, stop answering unless they do.