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بِسْمِ ٱللَّٰهِ ٱلرَّحْمَٰنِ ٱلرَّحِيمِ
In the name of God, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful
I start this thread in the name of Allah, By the guidance on Muhammad and the Ahlulbayt. I ask Allah to guide me onto the truth when I search for these proofs.
Bookmark this thread.
In the name of God, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful
I start this thread in the name of Allah, By the guidance on Muhammad and the Ahlulbayt. I ask Allah to guide me onto the truth when I search for these proofs.
Bookmark this thread.
I also do this thread in service of our prophet Jesus son of Mary (as) who has been oppressed by this false claim attributed against him. May Allah guide me through the waseela of the kalima of Allah Jesus Son of Mary.
I will be using the NIV of the Bible
I will be using the NIV of the Bible
The verse in Question: Book of Matthew 24, verse 36.
"But about that day or hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father."
I would like to examine this verse through logic and using Christian opinions.
"But about that day or hour no one knows, not even the angels in heaven, nor the Son, but only the Father."
I would like to examine this verse through logic and using Christian opinions.
First, Who is God?
Predominantly the main belief in the Christian belief is:
The trinity is God, made up of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit, where 3 is 1 and 1 is 3.
Predominantly the main belief in the Christian belief is:
The trinity is God, made up of the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit, where 3 is 1 and 1 is 3.
The verse speaks about how the knowledge of the final hour (Day of Judgement) is only known by the Father. (Note the specific mention of the father, even in different versions of the bible.)
So if there is 3 "gods" in 1 shouldn't ->
So if there is 3 "gods" in 1 shouldn't ->
They all possess the same knowledge if they are all 1?
Some commentators have said that the reasoning behind this verse is "to show the humanity of Christ" and mentioned below:
http://answersfromthebook.net/what-is-the-meaning-of-the-verse-matthew-2436/
Some commentators have said that the reasoning behind this verse is "to show the humanity of Christ" and mentioned below:
http://answersfromthebook.net/what-is-the-meaning-of-the-verse-matthew-2436/
Now the idea that the bible wants to portray the "Humanity" of God is a huge fallacy because:
God is unlimited, all-Seeing all-knowing and immortal
Human is limited, blind, stupid, and very mortal
To say these 2 things can be transient in one being is a huge fallacy in argument
God is unlimited, all-Seeing all-knowing and immortal
Human is limited, blind, stupid, and very mortal
To say these 2 things can be transient in one being is a huge fallacy in argument
Now even though the point above isn't as easy as that last tweet in regards to them, which will be the whole idea of these threads. But this key idea that 3 is 1 and 1 is 3 needs to have the certainty that all 3 are equal in knowledge and power, which this verse clearly rejects
If Jesus was god, and god is all knowing, why does Jesus not know the hour of the promised day?
Wa'Allahu A3lam.
Wa'Allahu A3lam.
